cap gemini gnit- kolkata-03-aug-2012

gnit- kolkata-03-aug-2012

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Capgemini Latest Placement papers 2012, Previous Year sample Question paper with Answer, Capgemini 2010,2012,2012 model Question paper with Answer, Frequently asked questions from Quantitative, Verbal, Non verbal, Technical,HR, Interview Tips and Candidate Experience, Capgemini Latest Company Profile, Selection procedure, Placement papers

I am giving my personnel experience to you. The aptitude was very easy, there were 2 sections:

I-Quantitative(25 Ques)

II-Analytical Reasoning(25 Ques)

There was sectional cut-off i.e 10 from each sections as told by CapGemini employees.

Quantitative: I don't remember all ques, but the all que were like these:

1 Fresh Grapes contain 90% water by wt. Dried grapes contain 20% water by %age. What will b wt of dried grapes when we begin with 20 kg fresh grapes?

2kg / 2.4kg / 2.5kg /none

2.How many 5 digit no. can b formed wit digits 1, 2, 3,4,5,6 which r divisible by 4 and digits not repeated

144 / 168 / 192 / none

3. Asish was given Rs. 158 in denominations of Rs 1 each. He distributes these in diff bags, such that ne sum of money of denomination betn 1 and 158 can be given in bags. The min no. of such bags reqd

10 / 17 / 15 / none

4.There is a rectangular Garden whose length and width are 60m X 20m.There is a walkway of uniform width around garden. Area of walkway is 516m^2. Find width of walkway

1/2/3/4

5. In a race from pt. X to pt Y and back, Jack averages 0 miles/hr to pt Y and 10 miles/hr back to pr X.Sandy averages 20 miles/hr in both directions. If Jack and Sandy start race at same tym, who’ll finish 1st

Jack/Sandy/they tie/Impossible to tell

6. A man engaged a servant on a condn that he’ll pay Rs 90 and also give him a bag at the end of the yr. He served for 9 months and was given a turban and Rs 65. So the price of turban is

i. Rs 10 / 19 / 0 / 55

7. Three wheels make 36, 24, 60 rev/min. Each has a black mark on it. It is aligned at the start of the qn. When does it align again for the first tym?

14/20/22/5 sec

8. If 1= (3/4)(1+ (y/x) ) then
i. x=3y

ii. x=y/3

iii. x=(2/3)y

iv. none

9. The sum of six consecutive odd nos. is 888. What is the average of the nos.?

i. 147

ii. 148

iii. 149

iv. 146

10. 1010/104*102=10?

i. 8

ii. 6

iii. 4

iv. none
11. one question was from conversion of hectare to kilametreReasonings were like this.These qns are based on situations given below:

7 Uni crick players are to be honored at a special luncheon. The players will be seated on a dais along one side of a single rectangular table.

A and G have to leave the luncheon early and must be seated at the extreme right end of table, which is closest to exit.

B will receive Man of the Match and must be in the centre chair

C and D who are bitter rivals for the position of Wicket keeper dislike one another and should be seated as far apart as possible

E and F are best friends and want to seat together.

13.Which of the foll may not be seated at either end of the table?

i. C

ii. D

iii. G

iv. F
14.Which of the foll pairs may not be seated together?
i. E & A

ii. B & D

iii. C & F

iv. G & D
An employee has to allocate offices to 6 staff members. The offices are no. 1-6. the offices are arranged in a row and they are separated from each other by dividers>hence voices, sounds and cigarette smoke flow easily from one office to another

Miss R needs to use the telephone quite often throughout the day. Mr. M and Mr. B need adjacent offices as they need to consult each other often while working. Miss H is a senior employee and his to be allotted the office no. 5, having the biggest window.

Mr D requires silence in office next to his. Mr. T, Mr M and Mr. D are all smokers. Miss H finds tobacco smoke allergic and consecutively the offices next to hers are occupied by non-smokers. Unless specifically stated all the employees maintain an atmosphere of silence during office hrs.

15.The ideal candidate to occupy office farthest from Mr. B will be

i. Miss H

ii. Mr. M

iii. Mr. T

iv. Mr. D

16.The three employees who are smokers should be seated in the offices

i. 1 2 4

ii. 2 3 6

iii. 1 2 3

iv. 1 2 3
17.The ideal office for Mr. M would be

i. 2

ii. 6

iii. 1

iv. 3
A robot moves on a graph sheet with x-y axes. The robot is moved by feeding it with a sequence of instructions. The different instructions that can be used in moving it, and their meanings are:

Instruction Meaning

GOTO(x,y) move to pt with co-ord (x,y) no matter where u are currently

WALKX(P) move parallel to x-axis through a distance of p, in the +ve direction if p is +ve and in –ve if p is –ve

WALKY(P) move parallel to y-axis through a distance of p, in the +ve direction if p is +ve and in –ve if p is –ve

19.The robot reaches point (5,6) when a sequence of 3 instr. Is executed, the first of which is GOTO(x,y) , WALKY(2), WALKY(4). What are the values of x and y??

i. 2,4

ii. 0,0

iii. 3,2

iv. 2,3

20. The robot is initially at (x.y), x>0 and y<0. The min no. of Instructions needed to be executed to bring it to origin (0,0) if you are prohibited from using GOTO instr. Is:

i. 2

ii. 1

iii. x + y

iv. 0

Ten coins are distr. Among 4 people P, Q, R, S such that one of them gets a coin, another gets 2 coins,3rd gets 3 coins, and 4th gets 4 coins. It is known that Q gets more coins than P, and S gets fewer coins than R

21.If the no. of coins distr. To Q is twice the no. distr. to P then which one of the foll. is necessarily true?

i. R gets even no. of coins

ii. R gets odd no. of coins

iii. S gets even no. of coins

iv. S gets odd no. of coins

22. If R gets at least two more coins than S which one of the foll is necessarily true?

i. Q gets at least 2 more coins than S

ii. Q gets more coins than P

iii. P gets more coins than S

iv. P and Q together get at least five coins
23.If Q gets fewer coins than R, then which one of the foll. is not necessarily true?

i. P and Q together get at least 4 coins

ii. Q and S together get at least 4 coins

iii. R and S together get at least 5 coins

iv. P and R together get at least 5 coins

Elle is 3 times older than Zaheer. Zaheer is ½ as old as Waheeda. Yogesh is elder than Zaheer.

24.What is sufficient to estimate Elle’s age?

i. Zaheer is 10 yrs old

ii. Yogesh and Waheeda are both older than Zaheer by the same no of yrs.

iii. Both of the above

iv. None of the above

25. Which one of the foll. statements can be inferred from the info above

i. Yogesh is elder than Waheeda

ii. Elle is older than Waheeda

iii. Elle’s age may be less than that of Waheeda

iv. None of the above

capgemini paper 1

Capgemini Latest Campus Placement Paper for 2013 Batch

October 8, 2012 By admin Leave a Comment

Test consists
1.Written test
Total 75 questions ,
Time Limit 60 minutes —

CAPGEMINI 14 JULY 2012 ONLINE  TEST AT KERELA.

Total  75  questions , 60 minutes —SECTIONAL CUTOFF IS THERE

1. Aptitude (25 quest)….20 MINUTE
2. Reasoning (25 quest)…20 MINUTE
3. English (25 quest)…20 MINUTE

CAPGEMINI’S NEW SET….

 LOOK CAREFULLY…THIS IS THE LATEST QUESTION SET OF CAPGEMINI,

CAPGEMINI. Aptitude (30 quest)

1. The average salary of 3 workers is 95 Rs. per week. If one earns Rs.115 and second earns Rs.65 how much is the salary of the 3rd worker.
Ans.105.

2. A 16 stored building has 12000 sq.feet on each floor. Company A rents 7 floors and company B rents 4 floors. What is the number of sq.feet of unrented floor space.
Ans.60000

3.During a given week A programmer spends 1/4 of his time preparing flow chart, 3/8 of his time coding and the rest of the time in debugging the programs. If he works 48 hours during the week , how many hours did he spend debugging the program.
Ans. 18.

4. A company installed 36 machines at the beginning of the year. In March they installed 9 additional machines and then disconnected 18 in August. How many were still installed at the end of the year.
Ans. 27

5. A man owns 2/3 of the market research beauro business and sells 3/4 of his shares for Rs. 75000. What is the value of Business ?
Ans.150000

6. If 12 file cabinets require 18 feet of wall space, how many feet of wall space will 30 cabinets require?
Ans.45

7. A computer printer produced 176,400 lines in a given day. If the printer was in operation for seven hours during the day, how many lines did it print per minute?
Ans.420

8. From its total income, A sales company spent Rs.20,000 for advertising, half of the remainder on commissions and had Rs.6000 left. What was its total income?
Ans.32000

9. On Monday a banker processed a batch of cheques, on Tuesday she processed three times as many, and on Wednesday she processed 4000 cheques. In the three days, she processed 16000 cheques. How many did she process on Tuesday?
Ans.9000

10. The cost of four dozen proof machine ribbons and five dozen accouting machine ribbons was Rs.160/-. If one dozen accounting machine ribbons cost Rs.20/-, what is the cost of a dozen proof machine ribbons?
Ans.Rs.15

11. If a clerk can process 80 cheques in half an hour, how many cheques can she process in a seven and one half hour day?
Ans.1200

12. In a library, there are two racks with 40 books per rack. On a given day, 30 books were issued. What fraction remained in the racks?
Ans.5/8

13. The average length of three tapes is 6800 feet. None of the tapes is less than 6400 feet. What is the greatest possible length of one of the other tapes?
Ans.7600

14. A company rented a machine for Rs.700/- a month. Five years later the treasurer calculated that if the company had purchased the machine and paid Rs.100/- monthly maintenance charge, the company would have saved
Rs.2000/-. What was the purchase price of the machine?
Ans.Rs.34000

15. Two computers each produced 48000 public utility bills in a day. One computer printed bills at the rate of 9600 an hour and the other at the rate of 7800 an hour. When the first computer finished its run, how many bills did the other computer still have to print?
Ans.9000

16. If a salesman’s average is a new order every other week, he will break the office record of the year. However, after 28 weeks, he is six orders behind schedule. In what proportion of the remaining weeks does he have to
obtain a new order to break the record?
Ans.3/4

17 On a given day, a bank had 16000 cheques returned by customers. Inspection of the first 800 cheques indicated that 100 of those 800 had errors and were therefore the available immediately for data processing. On this basis, how many cheques would be available immediately for data processing on that day?
Ans.14000

18. A tape manufacturer reduces the price of his heavy duty tape from Rs.30/- to Rs.28/- a reel and the price of a regular tape from Rs.24/- to Rs.23/- a reel. A computing centre normally spends Rs.1440/- a month for tapes
and 3/4 of this is for heavy duty tapes. How much will they save a month under the new prices?

Ans.Rs.87

19. The dimensions of a certain machine are 48″ X 30″ X 52″. If the size of the machine is increased proportionately until the sum of its dimensions equals 156″, what will be the increase in the shortest side?
Ans. 6″
20 In a certain company, 20% of the men and 40% of the women attended the annual company picnic. If 35% of all the employees are man, what percent of all the employees went to the picnic?
Ans.33%

21. It cost a college Rs.0.70 a copy to produce a Programme for the homecoming football game. If Rs.15,000/- was received for advertisements in the programme, how many copies at Rs.0.50 a copy must be sold to make a profit of Rs.8000/- ?
Ans. 35000

22. If the digits of my present age are reversed then i get the age of my son. If 1 year ago my age was twice as that of my son. Find my present age.
Ans. father-73, son-37

23. There are 6561 balls out of them 1 is heavy. Find the min. no. of times the balls have to be weighed for finding out the heavy ball.
Ans. 8

24.If I walk with 30 miles/hr i reach 1 hour before and if i walk with 20 miles/hr i reach 1 hour late. Find the distance between 2 points and the exact time of reaching destination is 11 am then find the speed with which it walks.
Ans. 120miles and 24 miles/hr

25. A thief steals half the total no of loaves of bread plus 1/2 loaf from a bakery. A second thief steals half the remaining no of loaves plus 1/2 loaf and so on. After the 5th thief has stolen there are no more loaves left in the
bakery. What was the total no of loaves did the bakery have at the beginning.
Ans: 31.

2. Reasoning (30 quest)

Answer Questions 1 to 5 on the basis of the information given below:
The only people to attend a conference were four ship captains and the first mates of three of those captains. The captains were L, M, N and O; the first mates were A, D and G Each person in turn delivered a report to the assembly as follows:

Each of the first mates delivered their report exactly after his or her captain. The first captain to speak was M, and captain N spoke after him.

1. Among the following which is not an appropriate order of delivered reports?

M, A, N, G, O, L, D
M, D, N, G, L, O, A
M, N, A, L, D, O, G
M, N, A, O, D, L, G
M, N, G, D, O, L, A

Ans : E

2. In case L speaks after A, and A is the third of the first mates to speak, then among the following statements which would be untrue?

O spoke immediately after G.
The order of the first four speakers was M, G, N, D.
O’s first mate was present.
A was the fourth speaker after M.
The captains spoke in the order M, N, O, L.

Ans : D

3. Among the following statements which statement must be true?

In case the second speaker was a captain, the seventh speaker was a first mate.
In case the second speaker was a first mate, the seventh speaker was a captain.
In case the third speaker was a first mate, the seventh speaker was a captain.
In case the third speaker was a captain, the seventh speaker was a first mate.
In case the seventh speaker was a first mate, the first and third speakers were captains.

Ans : A

4. In case A spoke immediately after L and immediately before O, and O was not the last speaker, L spoke

second
third
fourth
fifth
sixth

Ans : C

5. In case G is M’s first mate, D could be the person who spoke immediately

prior to T
prior to L
prior to V
after T
after V

Ans : D

6. At the college entrance exam, a candidate is admitted according to whether he has passed or failed the test. Of the candidates who are really capable, 80 % pass the test and of the incapable, 25 % pass the test. Given that 40 % of the candidates are really capable, then the proportion of the really capable students who can pass the test to the total students who can pass is about:

A. 68% B. 70% C. 75% D. 73%

Ans: B

7. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 km/hr and including stoppages, it is 45 km/hr. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour ?

A. 12 B. 10 C. 9 D. 15

Ans: B

8. A boy goes to see a film and finds a man who is his relative. The man is the husband of the sister of his mother. How is the man related to the boy?

A. Uncle B. Brother C. Nephew D. None of the above

Ans: A

9. The ratio between the number of passengers travelling by I & II Class between two railway stations is 1 : 50, whereas the ratio of the I & II Class fares between the same stations is 3 : 1. If on a particular day, Rs. 1325 were
collected from the passengers travelling between these stations, what was the amount collected from the II Class passengers ?

A. Rs.1250 B. Rs. 1100 C. Rs. 1000 D. Rs.1150
Ans: A

10. When Rajeev was born, his father was 32 years older than his brother and his mother was 25 years older than his sister. If Rajeev’s brother is 6 years older than Rajeev and his mother is 3 years younger than his father, how old was Rajeev’s sister when Rajeev was born?

A. 15 Years B. 7 Years C. 17 Years D. 10 Years

Ans: D

(A) RNMEDQ
(B) RPKEDS
(C) TPMEFS
(D) RNKCDQ
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions 11:15 : In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (A) if only conclusion I follows; (B) if only conclusion II follows; (C) if either I or II follows (D) if neither I or II follows and (E) if both I and II.

11.Statements : All puppets are dolls

All dolls are toys

Conclusions : I. Some toys are puppets

II. All toys are puppets

Ans: A

12.Statements : All apples are oranges

Some oranges are papayas

Conclusions : I. Some apples are papayas

II. Some papayas are apples

Ans: D

13. Statements :Some players are singers

All singers are tall

Conclusions : I. Some players are tall

II. All players are tall

Ans: A

14.Statements : All coins are crows

Some crows are pens

Conclusions : I. No pen is coin

II. Some coins are pens

Ans: D

15.Statements : All men are married

Some men are educated

Conclusions : I. Some married are educated

II. Some educated are married

Ans: E

16. Pointing to a man Snehlata says, “He is the only son of my father’s father.” How is Snehlata related to the man ?

(A) Mother
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Niece
(D) Sister
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

17. Pointing to a lady in photograph, Madhurendra said, “Her mother is the only daughter of my mother’s mother.” How is Madhurendra related to the lady?

(A) Nephew
(B) Uncle
(C) Maternal uncle
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

18. If P x Q means— ‘P is the brother of Q’, P ÷ Q means ‘P is the son of Q’ and ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’ , then which of the following relations will show that Q is the maternal uncle of P ?

(A) Q x R ÷ P
(B) Q ÷ R – P
(C) P x R – Q
(D) P ÷ R – Q
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

19. In the class of 40 students, if Sanju is at 30th place from one end, what is his position from the other end?

(A) 9th
(B) 12th
(C) 10th
(D) 11th
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

20. In a row of girls, Nivedita is 15th from the left and Vimla is 23rd from the right. If they interchange their positions, then Nivedita becomes 18 th from the left. Then at what position will Vimla be from the right?

(A) 25th
(B) 24th
(C) 26th
(D) 20th
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

21. As ‘Hindu worshiper’ is related to ‘Temple’ in the same way ‘Maulvi’ is related to what?

(A) Monastery
(B) Church
(C) Mosque
(D) Sikh temple
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. As ‘Hungry’ is related to ‘Food’ in the same way ‘Thirsty’ is related to what?

(A) Drink
(B) Tea
(C) Coffee
(D) Juice
(E) Waler
Ans : (E)

23. As ‘Fly’ is related to ‘Parrot’ in the same way ‘Creep’ is related to what?

(A) Snake
(B) Rabbit
(C) Fish
(D) Crocodile
(E) Sparrow
Ans : (A)

24. If ‘M’ denotes ‘÷’, ‘K, denotes ‘–’, ‘T’ denotes ‘×’ and ‘R’ denotes ‘+’, then; 20 K 16 T 8 M 4 R 6 = ?

(A) 18
(B) – 6
(C) – 12
(D) – 18
(E) None of these
Ans: B

25. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TERMINATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?

(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

Ans: B

3. English (30 quest)

Directions 1-5: In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on one side of : : and one word is given on another side of : :while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair bear. Choose the correct alternative.

1.Oxygen : Burn : : Carbon dioxide : ?

(A) Isolate (B) Foam (C) Extinguish (D) Explode

Ans: (C)

2. Grain : Stock : : Stick : ?

(A) Heap (B) Bundle (C) Collection (D) String

Ans: (B)

3. Planet : Orbit : : Projectile : ?

(A) Trajectory (B) Track (C) Milky way (D) Path

Ans: (A)

4. Genuine : Authentic : : Mirage : ?

(A) Image (B) Transpiration (C) Reflection (D) Illusion

Ans: (D)

5.Illiteracy : Education : : Flood : ?

(A) Rain (B) Bridge (C) Dam (D) River

Ans: (C)

Directions for Questions 6 to10 :Each of the following sentences has been divided into four parts. There is an error in one of the parts. Point out the part which has an error .

6.A) I was astonished by the highly exciting tricks /

B) the acrobat displayed on the rope /

C) at great risk of like

D) at such an advanced age.

Ans: A

7. A) We, who are fortunate enough /

B) to have lived in the present century, /

C) hardly realize how our ancestors suffered /

D) from the belief in the existence of evil spirits.

Ans: B

8. A) We were expecting at least twenty delegates /

B) to participate in the seminar, /

C) but when I reached the hall,

D) I found no any delegate present there.

Ans: D

9. A) We bought five dozens pencils from a shop,/

B) but on opening in the packet at home /

C) we found five pencils short, /

D) but the shopkeeper did not accept the responsibility of the shortage.

Ans: A

10. A) I wanted to book a parcel weighting twenty and a half kilos /

B) but the booking -clerk refused to book it /

C) on the ground

D) that it was not properly sealed.

Ans: A

Directions for Questions 11-15: In each of the following questions, a paragraph or a sentence has been broken up into different parts. The parts have been scrambled and numbered as given below. Choose the correct order of these parts from the given alternatives

A. The potential exchanges between the officials of IBBF and the Maharashtra Body-Building Association has all the trappings of a drama we are accustomed to.
B. In the case of sportspersons, there is room for some sympathy, but the apathy of the administrators, which has even led to sanctions from international bodies, is unpardonable.
C. A case in the point is the hefty penalty of US $10,000 slapped on the Indian Body-Building Federation for not fulfilling its commitment for holding the Asian Championships in Mumbai in October.
D. It is a matter of deep regret and concern that the sports administrators often cause more harm to the image of the country than sportsmen and sportswomen do through their dismal performances.

1] CABD 2] DBCA 3] DABC 4] CDBA

Ans: 2
A. Its cargo consisted of 38 sacks of spices and Magellan himself had been hacked to pieces on the beach of Mactan in the Phillipines
B. So contrary to popular beliefe it was the crew of the Victoria who were the first men to have sailed around the globe
C. In spetembre 1522 Victoria , the sole survivor of the Armada, limped into the spanish port San Lucar , manned by a skeleton crew of 15, so weak they could not talk
D. In septembre 1519 the Armada de Molucca of five ships and 250 sailors has set out from San lucar de Barrameda under the command of Fernando de Magellan
E. It was to sail to the spice islands of the Malayan Archipelago where they were to excahnge an assortemnt of bells , mirrors , and scissors for cinnamon and cloves.

1] DECAB 2] AEDCB 3] CDEAB 4] DEABC

Ans:1
A. What came out was very large garland made out of currency notes.
B. The unsuspecting governor opened the box in full view of the gathering
C. When the RBI governor came to inaugrate the new printing press , the local unit of the BJP handed him a gift wrapped box
D. There was a twist – the notes were all as tattered as notes could get

1] DACB 2] CABD 3] CBAD 4] DCAB

Ans:3
A. But in the industrial era destroying the enemy’s productive capacity means bombing the factories which are located in the cities.
B. So in the agrarian era, if you need to destroy the enemy’s productive capacity, what you want to do is bum his fields, or if you’re really vicious, salt them.
C. Now in the information era, destroying the enemy’s productive capacity means destroying the information infrastructure.
D. How do you do battle with your enemy?
E. The idea is to destroy the enemy’s productive capacity, and depending upon the economic foundation, that productive capacity is different in each case.
F. With regard to defence, the purpose of the military is to defend the nation and be prepared to do battle with its enemy.

1] FDEBAC 2] FCABED 3] DEBACF 4] DFEBAC

Ans:1
A. The situations in which violence occurs and the nature of that violence tends to be clearly defined at least in theory, as in the proverbial Irishman’s question: ‘Is this a private fight or can anyone join in?’
B. So the actual risk to outsiders, though no doubt higher than our societies, is calculable.
C. Probably the only uncontrolled applications of force are those of social superiors to social inferiors and even here there are probably some rules.
D. However binding the obligation to kill, members of feuding families engaged in mutual massacre will be genuinely appalled if by some mischance a bystander or outsider is killed.

1] DABC 2] ACDB 3] CBAD 4] DBAC

Ans:1

Directions for Questions 16 to 20: The passage given below is followed by a set of five questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

To summarize the Classic Maya collapse, we can tentatively identify five strands. I acknowledge, however, that Maya archaeologists still disagree vigorously among themselves—in part, because the different strands evidently varied in importance among different parts of the Maya realm; because detailed archaeological studies are available for only some Maya sites; and because it remains puzzling why most of the Maya heartland remained nearly empty of population and failed to recover after the collapse and after re-growth of forests.

With those caveats, it appears to me that one strand consisted of population growth outstripping available resources: a dilemma similar to the one foreseen by Thomas Malthus in 1798 and being played out today in Rwanda (Chapter 10), Haiti (Chapter 11), and elsewhere. As the archaeologist David Webster succinctly puts it, “Too many farmers grew too many crops on too much of the landscape.” Compounding that mismatch between population and resources was the second strand: the effects of deforestation and hillside erosion, which caused a decrease in the amount of useable farmland at a time when more rather than less farmland was needed, and possibly exacerbated by an anthropogenic drought resulting from deforestation, by soil nutrient depletion and other soil problems, and by the struggle to prevent bracken ferns from overrunning the fields.

The third strand consisted of increased fighting, as more and more people fought over fewer resources. Maya warfare, already endemic, peaked just before the collapse. That is not surprising when one reflects that at least 5,000,000 people, perhaps many more, were crammed into an area smaller than the state of Colorado (104,000 square miles). That warfare would have decreased further the amount of land available for agriculture, by creating no-man’s lands between principalities where it was now unsafe to farm. Bringing matters to a head was the strand of climate change. The drought at the time of the Classic collapse was not the first drought that the Maya had lived through, but it was the most severe. At the time of previous droughts, there were still uninhabited parts of the Maya landscape, and people at a site affected by drought could save themselves by moving to another site. However, by the time of the Classic collapse the landscape was now full, there was no useful unoccupied land in the vicinity on which to begin anew, and the whole population could not be accommodated in the few areas that continued to have reliable water supplies.

As our fifth strand, we have to wonder why the kings and nobles failed to recognize and solve these seemingly obvious problems undermining their society. Their attention was evidently focused on their short-term concerns of enriching themselves, waging wars, erecting monuments, competing with each other, and extracting enough food from the peasants to support all those activities. Like most leaders throughout human history, the Maya kings and nobles did not heed long-term problems, insofar as they perceived them. We shall return to this theme in Chapter 14.

Finally, while we still have some other past societies to consider in this book before we switch our attention to the modern world, we must already be struck by some parallels between the Maya and the past societies discussed in Chapters 2-4. As on Easter Island, Mangareva, and among the Anasazi, Maya environmental and population problems led to increasing warfare and civil strife. As on Easter Island and at Chaco Canyon, Maya peak population numbers were followed swiftly by political and social collapse. Paralleling the eventual extension of agriculture from Easter Island’s coastal lowlands to its uplands, and from the Mimbres floodplain to the hills, Copan’s inhabitants also expanded from the floodplain to the more fragile hill slopes, leaving them with a larger population to feed when the agricultural boom in the hills went bust. Like Easter Island chiefs erecting ever larger statues, eventually crowned by pukao, and like Anasazi elite treating themselves to necklaces of 2,000 turquoise beads, Maya kings sought to outdo each other with more and more impressive temples, covered with thicker and thicker plaster— reminiscent in turn of the extravagant conspicuous consumption by modern American CEOs. The passivity of Easter chiefs and Maya kings in the face of the real big threats to their societies completes our list of disquieting parallels.

According to the passage, which of the following best represents the factor that has been cited by the author in the context of Rwanda and Haiti?
(1) Various ethnic groups competing for land and other resources.
(2) Various ethnic groups competing for limited land resources.
(3) Various ethnic groups fighting wit each other.
(4) Various ethnic groups competing for political power.
(5) Various ethnic groups fighting for their identity.
Ans: 2

By an anthropogenic drought, the author means

(1) A drought caused by lack of rains.
(2) A drought caused due to deforestation.
(3) A drought caused by failure to prevent bracken ferns from overrunning the fields.
(4) A drought caused by actions of human beings.
(5) A drought caused by climate changes.

Ans: 4

According to the passage, the drought at the time of Maya collapse had a different impact compared to the droughts earlier because

(1) The Maya kings continue to be extravagant when common people were suffering.
(2) It happened at the time of collapse of leadership among Mayas.
(3) It happened when the Maya population had occupied all available land suited for agriculture.
(4) AIt was followed by internecine warfare among Mayans.
(5) Irreversible environmental degradation led to this drought.

Ans: 3

According to the author, why is it difficult to explain the reasons for Maya collapse?

(1) Copan inhabitants destroyed all records of that period.
(2) The constant deforestation and hillside erosion have wiped out all traces of the Maya kingdom.
(3) Archaeological sites of Mayas do not provide any consistent evidence.
(4) It has not been possible to ascertain which of the factors best explains as to why the Maya civilization collapsed.
(5) At least five million people were crammed into a small area.

Ans: 4

Which factor has not been cited as one of the factors causing the collapse of Maya society?

(1) Environmental degradation due to excess population.
(2) Social collapse due to excess population.
(3) Increased warfare among Maya people.
(4) Climate change.
(5) Obsession of Maya population with their own short-term concerns.

Ans: 3

Directions : In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

21. Abolish

minimize

Ans: A

22. make up

invent

complete

Ans: D

23. dispatched

taken by force
ordered to go
sent

Ans: D

24. ARDUOUS

Short
Difficult
Easy
Expensive

Ans: B

25. ABODE

Family
Farm
Car
Home

infosys PLACEMENT TEST PAPER PATTERN 1

PLACEMENT TEST PAPER PATTERN FOR INFOSYS
Placement pattern for Infosys consists of two rounds: the written test and a final
HR. Clearing the written test implies that the chance of being selected to Infosys is
almost done. The written Test consists of two test patterns:
1. APTITUDE REASONING TEST
QUESTIONS: 30     DURATION: 40 MINUTES
2. VERBAL ABILITY
QUESTIONS: 40    DURATION: 30 MINUTES
The Aptitude reasoning test pattern is distributed into 6 different topics( in general) with 5
questions each as:
1. PICTURE REASONING (5 questions) NON VERBAL
In this section, a series of pictures are given which may consist of picture series,
picture analogy or picture classification.
2. STATEMENT REASONING(5 Questions)
In this section, sequence questions like seating arrangement or money distribution
or height arrangement are given. A set of five questions are based directly on the
statements given.
3. DATA SUFFICIENCY (5 questions)
Here a set of two statements are given followed by 5 options which satisfy the
answer for the statements. You have to decide which option best suits the answer.
4. DATA INTERPRETATION (5 questions)
This section consists of a direct sequence of 5 questions based on the data which
is provided in the form of table charts, bar charts, pie charts or line charts.
5. RELATION PROBLEM (5 questions)
This section consists of questions which are similar to the sets and relations like
students with biology, maths, physics and chemistry, maths and biology, only
physics, etc., and questions related as such.
6. SYLLOGISM (LOGIC) (5 questions)
This section consists of statement followed by two conclusions. We need to pick out
from 5 options which suits the best answer

The Verbal Ability test pattern is distributed into 5 different topics as:
1. SENTENCE CORRECTION (8 questions)
Among 4 sentences the correct one should be detected
2. UNDERLINED A PART OF SENTENCE AND ASKED TO INSERT CORRECT
PHRASE IN IT FROM THE GIVEN 4 OPTIONS (8questions)
3. FILL IN THE BLANKS (8questions)
4.THEME DETECTION (6 questions)
5.TWO READING COMPREHENSIONS (10 questions)
Below are the sample test papers for Infosys recruitment process:
PART A
SAMPLE TEST PAPER OF APTITUDE REASONING FOR INFOSYS
Questions: 30 Duration: 40 Minutes
Directions (Questions 1-5) Each of the following questions consists of five figures
marked A, B, C, D and E called the Problem Figures followed by five other figures
marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 called the Answer Figures. Select a figure from amongst the
Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem
Figures.
1. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series
as established by the five Problem Figures.
Problem Figures: Answer Figures:
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
Ans: CExplanation: In each step, element at the upper-right position gets enlarged, inverts
vertically and reaches the lower-left corner; the existing element at the lower-left
position, is lost and a new small element appears at the upper-right position.
2. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series
as established by the five Problem Figures.
Problem Figures: Answer Figures:
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
Ans:B
Explanation: In each step, the elements move in the sequence.
3. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series
as established by the five Problem Figures.
Problem Figures: Answer Figures:
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
Ans: D
Explanation: In each step, the CW-end element moves to the ACW-end position.
4. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series
as established by the five Problem Figures.
Problem Figures: Answer Figures:
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
Ans: A
Explanation: The ‘x’ moves one step and two steps ACW alternatively and a symbol is
added each time it moves one before and the other after alternatively.
5. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series
as established by the five Problem Figures.
Problem Figures: Answer Figures:
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
Ans:EExplanation: In each step, the figure rotates ACW and the trapezium gets inverted.
The other symbol gets replaced by a new one alternatively.
Directions (Questions 6-10) Each of the following Questions consists of five options.
Choose the best option that suits the question given.
6. Nithin was counting down from 32. Sumit was counting upwards the numbers starting
from 1 and he was calling out only the odd numbers. What common number will they
call out at the same time if they were calling at the same speed?
A. 19 B. 21 C.22 D.They will not call out the same number
E. None of these.
Ans: D
Explanation:
Nithin: 32 31 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20…..
Sumit: 1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15 17 19 21 23 25…
Clearly it is seen that they never call out same nmber at the same time.
7.Radha moves towards South-east a distance of 7 km, then she moves towards West and
travels a distance of 14m. From here, she moves towards North-west a distance of 7 m
and finally she moves a distance of 4 m towards East and stod at that point. How far is
the starting point from where she stood?
A. 3 m B. 4m C.8 m D10 m E.11 m
Ans:D
Explanation: The movements of Radha are shown as below:
Clearly Radha’s distance from starting point O = OD = (OC –CD) =(AB-CD)
= (14-4) m = 10 m
8. In a certain office, 1/3 of the workers are women, ½ of the women are married and 1/3
of the married women have children. If 3/4 th of the men are married and2/3 rd of the
married men have children, what part of workers are without children?
A. 5/18 B. 4/9 C. 11/18 D17/18 E.17/36
Ans: C
Explanation: Let total no. of workers be x
Number of women = x/3 and number of men = 2x/3
Women married=1/2 * x/3 = x/6
Women having children = 1/3 *x/6 =x/18
Married Men =3/4 *2x/3 = x/2
Men having Children =2/3 * x/2 = x/3
Workers with children = x/3 + x/18 = 7x/18
Hence, workers without children = x- 7x/18 = 11x/189. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and z are in the centre. A and P are at the
ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of P?
A. P B. A C.X D.S E.Z
Ans: C
Explanation : The seating arrangement is as follows:
P X S Z R A
Hence , right of P is X.
10. Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of the father of my
uncle." How is the boy related to the girl?
A. Brother B. Nephew C. Uncle D. son in law
E. grand father
Ans: A
Explanation:
The father ofthe boy's uncle → the grandfather of the boy and daughter of the
grandfather → sister of father.
Directions(Questions 11-12): Each Question Given Below has a problem and two
statements numbered I and II giving certain Information. You have to decide if the
information given in the statements is sufficient for answering the problem. Indicate
your answer as
(i) if data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question;
(ii) if data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question;
(iii) if data either in I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question;
(iv) if the data even in both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the
question;
(v) if the data in both the statements are needed.
11. Is Anil taller than Sachin?
I. Dinesh is of the same height as Arun and Sachin.
II. Sachin is not shorter than Dinesh.
A. i B. iii C. ii D. v E. iv
Ans: A
Explanation: From statement I, we can conclude that Dinesh, Arun and Sachin are of
same height. So, Arun is not taller than Sachin. So, only statement I is sufficient to
answer the question.
12. In a certain code language, ‘13’ means ‘stop smoking’ and ‘59’ means ‘injurious
habit’. What is the meaning of ‘9’ and ‘5’ respectively in that code?
I. ‘157’ means ‘stop bad habit’
II. ‘839’ means ‘smoking is injurious’.
A. ii B. iii C. v D. iv E. iAns: B
Explanation: ‘59’ means ‘injurious habit’ and ‘157’ means ‘stop bad habit’. Hence
common letter ‘5’ denotes ‘habit’. Hence ‘9’ is obviously ‘injurious’. So I alone can be
sufficient. Also, ‘59’ is ‘injurious habit’ and ‘839’ is ‘smoking is injurious’ from which it
can be implied that ‘9’ is ‘injurious’. Hence II alone can also be sufficient. Hence either I
or II alone can be sufficient.
Directions(13- 15): In the following problem, there is one question and three
statements I, II and III below the question. You have to decide whether the data
given in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements
carefully and find out the probable pair which can be sufficient to answer the
question.
13. Five persons --- A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row. Who is sitting in the middle?
I. B is in between E and C.
II. B is to the right of E.
III. D is in between A and E.
A. I and II together B. II and III together C. I and III together
D. I, II and III together E. Data insufficient.
Ans: D
Explanation:
From I, the order is E, B, C or C, B, E.
From II, the order is E, B.
From III, the order is A, D, E.
Combining all the three, we get the order as: A, D, E, B, C.
Clearly, E is sitting in the middle.
Hence all the three statements are required.
14. Four Subjects --- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology were taught in four
consecutive periods of one hour each starting from 8.00 a.m. At what time was the
Chemistry period scheduled?
I. Mathematics period ended at 10.00 am which was preceded by Biology.
II. Physics was scheduled in the last period.
III. Mathematics period was immediately followed by Chemistry.
A. Only I B. Only I or II C. Only II D. II and III together.
E. I and II together or I and III together
Ans: E
Explanation: From I and II we conclude that Mathematics period began at9.00 a.m.,
Biology period began at 8.00 a.m. and Physics period began at 11.00 a.m. So, the
Chemistry period began at 10.00 a.m.
From I and III, it is clearly seen that Mathematics period ended at 10.00 a.m. followed by
Chemistry to start at 10.00 a.m.
15. How many sons does Sharma have?
I. Saurav and Aditya are brothers of Sonali.II. Ayesha is sister of Sharmila and Aditya.
III. Ayesha and Sonali are daughters of Sharma.
A. I and II only. B. II and III together. C. I, II and III together
D. I, II, III together are not sufficient E. I and III together
Ans: C
Explanation: From I, Saurav, Aditya and Sonali are siblings. From II, Ayesha, Sharmila
and Aditya are siblings. It implies that Saurav, Aditya, Ayesha, Sharmila and Sonali are
siblings. This is supported by III.
Directions (Questions 16-20): The following table shows the number of new
employees added to different categories of employees in a company and also the no
of employees from these categories who left the company ever since the foundation
of the company in 1995.
16. During the period of 1995 and 2000, the total no of operators who left the company is
what percent of the total number of Operators who joined the company?
A. 19% B. 21% C. 27% D. 29% E. 32%
Ans: D
Explanation: Total no. of operators who left the company during 1996 to 2000
= (104 + 120 + 100 + 112 + 144) = 580.
Total No. of Operators who joined the company during 1996 to 2000
= (880 + 256 + 240 + 208 + 192 + 248) = 2024.
Hence, required Percentage = (580/2024 * 100) = 28.66% = 29%
17. For which of the following categories the percentage increase in the number of
employees working in the company from 1996 to 2000 was maximum?
A. Managers B. Technicians C. Operators D. Accountants
E. Peons.
Ans: A
Explanation:
No. of managers in 1995 = 760No. of managers by 2000 = (760 + 280 + 179 + 145 + 160 + 193) – (120 + 92 + 88 + 72
+ 96) = 1252.
Hence, percentage of increase = (1262-760)/760 * 100 = 64.74%
Similarly we can calculate for the rest of employees.
18. What is the difference between total number of Technicians added to the company
and total number of Accountants added to the company during the year 1996 to 2000 at
the maximum?
A. 128 B. 112 C. 96 D. 88 E. 72
Ans: D
Explanation: (272 + 240 + 236 + 256 + 288) – (200 + 224 + 248 + 272 + 260) = 88
19. What was the total no. of peons working in the company in the year 1999?
A. 1312 B. 1192 C.1088 D.968 E.908
Ans: B
Explanation: (820 + 184 + 152 + 196 + 224) – (96 + 88 + 80 + 120) = 1192
20. What is the pooled average of all employees in the year 1997?
A. 1325 B. 1285 C. 1265 D. 1235 E. 1195
Ans: E
Explanation:
Managers: (760 + 280 + 179) – (120 + 92) = 1007
Technicians: (1200 + 272 + 240) – (120 + 128) = 1464
Operators: (880 +256 +240) – (104 + 120) = 1152
Accountants: (1160 +200 +224) – (100 + 104) = 1380
Peons: (820 + 184 + 152) – (96 + 88) = 972
Hence pooled average of 5 categories = (1007 + 1464 + 1152 + 1380 + 972)/5 = 1195
Directions (Questions 21-25): The following questions are based on the information
given. Choose the appropriate answer that suits the question based on the
information.
A cube is cut in two equal parts along a plane parallel to one of its faces. One piece is
then colored red on the two larger faces and green on remaining. While the other is
colored green on two smaller adjacent faces and red on the remaining. Each is then cut
into 32 cubes of same size and mixed up.
21. How many cubes have only one colored face each?
A. 32 B. 8 C. 16 D. 24 E. 0
Ans: C
Explanation: 8 from first half and 8 from second half of the main cube. Hence total of 16 cubes.
22. What is the number of cubes with at least one green face on each?
A. 36 B. 32 C. 38 D. 48 E. 40
Ans: C
Explanation:
24 from I and 14 from II
23. How many cubes have two red and one green face on each?
A. 16 B. 12 C. 8 D. 4 E. 0
Ans: D
Explanation:None from I and 4 from II
24. How many cubes have no colored face at all?
A. 32 B. 24 C. 16 D. 8 E.0
Ans:E
Explanation:
There is no cube in all, when all the faces are enclosured.
25. How many cubes have each one red and another green?
A. 0 B. 8 C.16 D.24 E.32
Ans: D
Explanation:16 from I and 8 from II
Directions (Questions 26-30): In each of the following questions two statements are
given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You
have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly
known facts.
26. Statements: Some papers are pens. All the pencils are pens.
Conclusions:
1. Some pens are pencils.
2. Some pens are papers.
A. Only (1) conclusion follows
B. Only (2) conclusion follows
C. Both (1) and (2) follow
D. Either (1) or (2) follows
E. Neither (1) nor (2) follows
Ans: C
Explanation:
27. Statements: Some dogs are bats. Some bats are cats. Conclusions:
1. Some dogs are cats.
2. Some cats are dogs
A. Only (2) conclusion follows
B. Both (1) and (2) follow
C. Either (1) or (2) follows
D. Only (1) conclusion follows
E. Neither (1) nor (2) follows
Ans: E
Explanation:
28. Statements: All the windows are doors. No door is a wall.
Conclusions:
1. Some windows are walls.
2. No wall is a door.
A. Either (1) or (2) follows
B. Only (2) conclusion follows
C. Both (1) and (2) follow
D. Neither (1) nor (2) follows
E. Only (1) conclusion follows
Ans: B
Explanation: 29. Some actors are singers. All the singers are dancers.
Conclusions:
1. Some actors are dancers.
2. No singer is actor.
A. Only (1) conclusion follows
B. Only (2) conclusion follows
C. Either (1) or (2) follows
D. Neither (1) nor (2) follows
E. Both (1) and (2) follow
Ans: A
Explanation:
30. Statements: All the pencils are pens. All the pens are inks.
Conclusions:
1. All the pencils are inks.
2. Some inks are pencils.
A. Only (2) conclusion follows
B. Only (1) conclusion follows
C. Either (1) or (2) follows
D. Both (1) and (2) follow
E. Neither (1) nor (2) follows
Ans: D
Explanation: PART B
SAMPLE TEST PAPER OF VERBAL ABILITY FOR INFOSYS
Questions: 40 Duration: 35 Minutes
Directions (Questions 1-8): Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace
the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct? If the sentence is
correct as it is, mark 'E' as the answer.
1. You need not come unless you want to.
A.You don't need to come unless you want to
B.You come only when you want to
C.You come unless you don't want to
D.You needn't come until you don't want to
E.No correction required
Ans: A
2. They were all shocked at his failure in the competition.
A.were shocked at all B.had all shocked at
C.had all shocked by D.had been all shocked on
E.No correction required
Ans: E
3. Despite of their differences on matters of principles, they all agree on the demand of
hike is salary?
A.Despite their B.Despite of the
C.Despite for their D.Despite off their
E.No correction required
Ans: A
4. He is a singer of repute, but his yesterday's performance was quite disappointing.A.performances of yesterday were
B.yesterday performance was
C.yesterday performance were
D.performances about yesterday were
E.No correction required
Ans: E
5.The crime has growth rapidly in Russia since the disintegration of the communist
system.
A.rapid crime has grown B.crime has grown rapidly
C.crimes grow rapidly D.crimes have been rapidly grown
E.No correction required
Ans: B
6. My hair stood off ends when I saw the horrible sight.
A.stood at ends B.stood on ends
C.stood to ends D.stands on ends
E.No correction required
Ans: B
7. The crops are dying; it must not had rained.
A.must had not B.must not be
C.must not have D.must not have been
E.No correction required
Ans: C
8. The intruder stood quietly for few moments
A.for few time B.for the few moments
C.for moments D.for a few moments
E.No correction required
Ans: D
Directions (Questions 9-16): In questions given below, a part of the sentence is
italicized and underlined
9.
. Below are given alternatives to the italicized part which may
improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed,
option 'D' is the answer.
If the room had been brighter
A.
, I would have been able to read for a while before bed
time.
If the room was brighter B.If the room are brighter
C.Had the room been brighter D.No improvementAns: C
10. If you are not clear about the meaning of a word, it is wise to look to
A.
a dictionary.
look for B.look at
C.look up D.No improvement
Ans: C
11. There is no more room for you in this compartment.
A.there is no more seat B.there is no more space
C.there is no more accommodation D.No improvement
Ans: B
12. More than one person was killed in accident.
A.were killed B.are killed
C.have been killed D.No improvement
Ans: A
13. Every time I go in a lift to my sixth floor apartment, I remember the calm and
serenity of my ancestral home in the village.
A.move in a lift B.ascend in a lift
C.take a lift D.No improvement
Ans: C
14. My friend was in hospital for a week after
A.
an accident.
through B.following
C.for D.No improvement
Ans: B
15. If you are living near a market place you should be ready to bearthe disturbances
caused by traffic.
A.to bear upon B.to bear with
C.to bear away D.No improvementAns: B
16. In India today many of our intellectuals still talk in terms of the French Revolution
and the Rights of Man, not appreciating that much has happened since then.
A.much has been happening B.much had happened
C.much might happen D.No improvement
Ans: D
Directions (Questions17-24): Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words
to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
17. Catching the earlier train will give us the ...... to do some shopping.
A.chance B.luck
C.possibility D.occasion
Ans: A
18. Many of the advances of civilization have been conceived by young people just on the
...... of adulthood
A.boundary B.threshold
C.peak D.horizon
Ans: B
19. If I take a state roadways bus, I'll get late...?
A.isn't it B.won't I
C.will I D.is it
Ans: B
20. The paths of glory lead ...... to the grave.
A.straight B.but
C.in D.directly
Ans: B
21. Wheat ...... carbohydrates, vitamins, proteins, and dietary fibre in our daily diet.A.has B.gives
C.yields D.provides
Ans: C
22....... all intents and purposes, the manager is the master of the firm.
A. in B. upon
C.with D. to
Ans: D
23.He ...... in wearing the old fashioned coat in spite of his wife's disapproval.
A.insists B.persists
C.desists D.resists
Ans: B
24. We shall not to be able to use your ability in court unless we can find someone to ......
to statements.
A.corroborate B.avouch
C.verify D.approve
Ans: A
Directions (Questions25-30): Each of the following questions contains a small
paragraph followed by a question on it. Read each paragraph carefully and answer the
question given below it.
25. Due to enormous profits involved in smuggling, hundreds of persons have been
attracted towards this anti-national activity. Some of them became millionaires
overnight. India has a vast coastline both on the Eastern and Western Coast. It has
been a heaven for smugglers who have been carrying on their activities with great
impunity. There is no doubt, that from time to time certain seizures were made by the
enforcement authorities, during raids and ambush but even allowing these losses the
smugglers made huge profits.
The passage best supports the statement that
A.Smuggling hampers the economic development of a nation.
B.Smuggling ought to be curbed.
C.Authorities are taking strict measures to curb smuggling.
D.Smuggling is fast increasing in our country owing to the quick profit it entails.Ans: D
26. Industrial exhibitions play a major role in a country's economy. Such exhibitions,
now regularly held in Delhi, enable us to measure the extent of our own less advanced
industrial progress and the mighty industrial power and progress of countries like the
U.K., U.S.A. and Russia whose pavilions are the centers of the greatest attention and
attractions.
The passage best supports the statement that industrial exhibitions -
A.Greatly tax the poor economies.
B.Are more useful for the developed countries like U.S.A. whose products stand out
superior to those of the developing countries.
C.Are not of much use to the countries that are industrially backward.
D.Boost up production qualitatively and quantitatively by analytical comparison of a
country's products with those of the developed countries.
Ans: D
27. It is up to our government and planners to devise ways and means for the
mobilization of about ten crore workers whose families total up about forty crore men,
women and children. Our agriculture is over-manned. A lesser number of agriculturists
would mean more purchasing or spending power to every agriculturist. This will result in
the shortage of man-power for many commodities to be produced for which there will be
a new demand from a prosperous agrarian class. This shortage will be removed by
surplus man-power released from agriculture as suggested above.
The passage best supports the statement that:
A.Employment in production is more fruitful than employment in agriculture.
B.Indian economy is in a poor shape basically due to improper mobilization of manpower.
C.A shift of labour from agricultural sector to the industrial sector would uplift the living
standard.
D.The industrial sector is labour-deficient while the agricultural sector is over-manned in
our country.
Ans: B
28. The only true education comes through the stimulation of the child's powers by the
demands of the social situations in which he finds himself. Through these demands he is
stimulated to act as a member of a unity, to emerge from his original narrowness of
action and feeling, and to conceive himself from the standpoint of the welfare of the
group to which he belongs.
The passage best supports the statement that real education -
A.Will take place if the children imbibe action and feeling.